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Compound Interest Part 1 6
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Lecture1.1
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Lecture1.2
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Lecture1.3
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Lecture1.4
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Lecture1.5
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Lecture1.6
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Compound Interest Part 2 3
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Lecture2.1
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Lecture2.2
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Lecture2.3
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Present Value 4
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Lecture3.1
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Lecture3.2
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Lecture3.3
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Lecture3.4
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Annuities 6
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Lecture4.1
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Lecture4.2
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Lecture4.3
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Lecture4.4
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Lecture4.5
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Lecture4.6
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Perpetuities 2
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Lecture5.1
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Lecture5.2
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Bonds 6
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Lecture6.1
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Lecture6.2
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Lecture6.3
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Lecture6.4
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Lecture6.5
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Lecture6.6
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Dividend Discount Model 3
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Lecture7.1
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Lecture7.2
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Lecture7.3
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Risk 8
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Lecture8.1
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Lecture8.2
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Lecture8.3
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Lecture8.4
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Lecture8.5
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Lecture8.6
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Lecture8.7
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Lecture8.8
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Capital Asset Pricing Model 6
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Lecture9.1
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Lecture9.2
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Lecture9.3
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Lecture9.4
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Lecture9.5
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Lecture9.6
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Present Value
Discounting a Cashflow¶
Now, the question is how to do we do this in reverse? For example, what if we start with getting $100 in five years?
#Now the question is, what is $100 in 5 years worth to us today
timelinePlot(5,(100,5))
Let's take a simple example first. What about $105 in one year? What value would we have had to been given at time 0 if we wanted to have that one year later?
#Start with $105 in one year
timelinePlot(1,(105,1))
If we had $100 and a 5\% interest rate we know we would have ended up at the same place in a year.
timelinePlot(1,(100,0))
What about $100 in two years? What would we need at time 0 to have gotten this? We can divide by 1.05 twice to get the number.
timelinePlot(2,(100,2))
PV = 100 / 1.05 / 1.05
timelinePlot(2,(PV,0))
This brings us to the formula for present value. It is simply the reverse of compounding.
$ PV = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^t}$
where
$ PV = \text{Present Value} $
$ FV = \text{Future Value at time t} $
$ t = \text{Time period for future value} $
$ r = \text{Discount rate} $
Returning to our original question, what is $100 in 5 years from today supposed to be worth if the discount rate is 5%. We can easily solve like below.
PV = 100 / 1.05 ** 5
print(PV)
78.35261664684589
The two cashflows below are equivalent in terms of present value.
#Plot the equivalent PV cash flows
timelinePlot(5, (100, 5))
timelinePlot(5, (PV, 0))